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Originally Posted by deltawalkerl
EDR, I seriously doubt that you have any experience with philosophy.
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You are 100% wrong, as you have been throughout most of this discussion.
As I previously stated (a theme you will see throughout this post, since you do not read and comprehend), when I think about philosphy, I think about various religions, theology and theory, and the various backgrounds, principles of fate or freewill?
You apparently, think about how 1+1=2. You're still not getting it, are you? That's what I thought.
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Originally Posted by deltawalkerl
"Overly logical" do not make any sense.
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You just don't comprehend! ANYTHING can be done in excess. Any particular thought process can be put into an obsessive compulsive context, as you have been doing. You are, without any doubt, overly logical!
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Originally Posted by deltawalkerl
Thirdly, bringing up dictionary definitions of words are of no value to this conversation.
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That truly is probably the most idiotic statement you've made throughout all of this. The fact that you have clearly stated that precise words need to be defined and agreed upon up front, and yet now you denounce my attempt to look at specific words to make sure we can define them correctly continues to undermine any credibility you think you have during such feable attempts to save face!
You say it's not relevant, but part of my argument, has repeatedly been and remains that your dream of a perfect world where there is no linguistic barries or room for interpretation and variance, is a farce! Hence, the dictionary is extremely appropriate in that context, and by using the correct medium for this argument, you couldn't handle it, so completely denounced the dictionary.
You so desperately hate to lose any argument that you will go to an extreme to state something like, "We need to define the words exactly, but looking in a dictionary is of no value." Gees, get some help!
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Originally Posted by deltawalkerl
The study of philosophy requires the following: every concept that you include in an argument must be defined in a clear and incontrovertible manner.
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Hello, is there an echo in the house? Once again, you just contradicted yourself. We *can* agree, but we *cannot* look up words in the dictionary to make sure we are all using them correctly, together? Oh, that's right, the dictionary is wrong anyway, you are right, right?
No pun intended but how do we get from point A to point B? If B is the "clear, defined and incotrovertible manner", what is A - specific words and a dictionary? Maybe you can think better when presented in that manner, Mr. Overly Logical!
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Originally Posted by deltawalkerl
To do so you may either define every single concept (concepts include words) every time you speak, or you can use the definitions already established by philosophers that came before you. For us to argue, we acknowledge common definitions of universal concepts that are established by other philosophers.
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Man, you really are a brick wall, who doesn't read or comprehend anything anyone else says. You are so extremely close-minded, you are much worse than overly logical! I've repreatedly stated that even in philosophy, even those that *came before us* have texts that are INTERPRETED differently by different people throughout the ages, including philosophers that succeed the original and re-define the concept.
As time progressed and different philosophers got ahold of the same topic and redefined it in their terms (another issue of interpretation and linguistics), which philosopher do I follow now? Who's definition is correct, the last one to define it, the first one? All preceded me (your stated critera), but each one defined it differently. You know the answer, right?
For example, you went through the progression of skepticism, with three different entities and ended with Hume. All of them came before us, so do I use philosopher A,B or C's definition? I can't use the dictionary, but I can only use how an ancient philosopher defined it?

Let's see getting back from point A to point B. B is the defined words, but A has four potentially *cancelling* variables:
1. Cannot use dictionary for word definition, huh?

2. Original definition provided by the first philosopher to discuss topic X
3. Modified definition provided by Philosopher 2 about topic X
4. Modified definition provided by Philopsoher 3 (Hume) about topic X
Ok, in your terminology, what is the RULE in this case? Do we use the original definition, or the most recent modified interpretation of the original? You haven't even thought that far, have you? You don't have any RULE yet (yet you preach so strongly about rules and models), but I'm sure you'll make one up with another eager attempt to save face in this one.
Are you getting any of this? Do you see where I'm headed - there are no absolutes! THAT you cannot yet comprehend!
Before YOU enter into any discussions, YOU should post YOUR rules and YOUR definitions for the *common ground* so that everyone understands your obscure BullS*** from the getgo, and can forego hours of trying to get through a brick wall.
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| I have already established that without logic no thought exist. You seem to have an incorrect idea of philosophy when you brought up your understanding of metaphysics. |
When and where did I specifically *define* metaphysics for you? In what way did I provide my understanding?
Talking to someone who puts words in people's mouths, attempts to interpret and define their commentary for them, uses incorrect statements and feels the need to drop names of other people who support them to feed their own ego and undermine the opponent, is a sad, sad individual!
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Originally Posted by deltawalkerl
For one to not agree on this fundamental concepts, one can do nothing but to remain quiet.
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You've done neither; agreed, or remained quiet! You are a bundle of contradictions that understands the dictionary better than its authors, who doesn't address a direct question, who routinely changes his tune, and who feeds inaccurate psycho-babble-jargon to weasel out of being wrong. Did I write, *sad* once before?