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Originally Posted by dsaewra
No, you're wrong. Second to none implies that it is second to nobody, or more simply stated, in first. Even if you wanted to argue that the phrase could mean that it finished always finished 3rd or worse, that's untrue, because, for example, if it was 4th, it'd be second to 3rd place.
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No, you're both wrong! LOL
We use it as a phrase to represent "It's the best"
but it could be taken the other way... think about it...
"So do you have an STD?"
"yeah, but i only have chlamydia, and that's second to none."
meaning: chlamydia isn't that bad, it's second behind no std which is in first place (obviously), then there could be other ones, for example say ... "aids is second to chlamydia," in this case that means that aids is in third place
lol, this is a bad example but it is the first one that popped in my head.
it's just a figure of speech though, who cares?